How Does the Bible Treat Women?

In my view, developing an accurate understanding the Bible relies not only on taking the Scripture in context of other scriptures, but in also in the context of the goal being undertaken at the time they were written. In this case, that goal was the building of a nation and the establishment of a lawful and ordered society. A recurring thought upon hearing so much criticism of God's Old Covenant laws is, none of us is capable of creating this world, this earth, the solar system, the sun. Which of us could have created the concept of gravity, even conceived setting in motion the laws of physics that govern our existence? Who among us is wise enough to establish "from scratch" the laws and principles that would govern nations?

It would be wise, then, to consider with care questioning the motives and reasoning of the being who did the things that we are not and can never be capable of doing. In addition, I would like to say that I know from personal experience that God loves and cares for every human being. It is not His will that any should perish, but that all should have everlasting life. God has given commandments to help and not to harm us. I believe that He, more than anything or anyone else, wants what is best for me and you.


In Lev. 12, a woman was to be considered "unclean" for double the time if she gave birth to a baby girl (7 days for a boy, 14 for a girl).

God created a hierarchy of leadership in order to establish and maintain an ordered society. In my view, this is perhaps God's way of showing, at birth, not that the male was more valuable or required less cleansing than the female, but that he was to be respected as the head, the leader. In addition, a male child would not go on to bear other children; a female child probably would.

I also believe God created Adam first and then created Eve as his complement. Shouldn't God have created them both at the same time, and as "equals"? I would maintain that men and women are not equal, just as apples and oranges are not equal. Both are fruit, but they are entirely different. Just as apples and oranges serve different dietary purposes, so men and women serve different purposes in God's plan. By His design women are better suited for some things than men, and men are better suited for some things than women.

According to Lev. 27:1-7, women are worth half as much as men.

Purely in monetary value. (And, if you re-read those passages, you'll notice that women are worth up to two-thirds of a male, in some cases. :-) People are paid different amounts for their work even today. There is the oft-quoted bit these days about women earning $.77 for every dollar that a man earns. Even if that were true, which it isn't, does that have any direct correlation to the true value of woman? Does the fact that a man earns a lot of money, or is worth a lot of money have anything to do with his value? I do not see that it does. Rather, it is the correlation of the return on investment that could and can be acheived with a male that could not be acheived with a female. Males are capable of performing more difficult physical tasks for longer periods of time than women, in most cases. It is this that made the men more monetarily valuable. It had nothing to do with the true valuation of women, at all. (info)

In Deut. 22:13-21, women who do not have "tokens of virginity" (I won't go into detail, but it's possible to not have the "token" and still be a virgin) are to be stoned to death. No mention is made of punishments for male non-virgins.

It is possible, especially nowadays, for women to do things that would prematurely remove the "token." However, in the times of the Old Testament, women did not do ballet, track, "western" style horse-back riding, or many of the other types of activities common among today's young women that have the aforementioned unfortunate side-effect. (info) In addition, allowance was made for the woman, and her parents to have the right and the opportunity to defend the charge. She wasn't just taken out immediately and stoned.

And if you think it's difficult to prove that a woman is a virgin, try proving that a man is. But regardless, at that time it was not uncommon for men to have more than one wife, so it would also not be uncommon for the marrying man to not be a virgin. I believe the Old Testament provides direction for situations in which the man commits fornication just as the verses you selected for the woman.

Deut. 22:28-29 commands rape victims to marry their rapists.

Taken in context, it does not sound like the scripture you selected is referring to rape, since clear instructions are given in those cases: "...and the man force her, and lie with her:...then the man only that lay with her shall die. But unto the damsel thou shalt do nothing;..."

According to 1 Tim. 2:14, only Eve was "in transgression".

Only Eve was deceived into sinning by Satan. Eve was directly deceived by Satan into believing that if she ate of the Tree, she would become as wise as God. And, for that matter, Adam was not deceived, probably because Eve told him the truth: the fruit was, "...good for food..." Rather, he willfully and knowingly sinned, for which he was punished, just as Eve was.

1 Tim. 2:15 seems to indicate that women are saved only through childbirth and good works (thus seemingly damning both unmarried women, and women unable to have children).

You're misinterpreting the last part of the verse, which reads in the KJV as, if they continue in faith and charity and holiness with sobriety. No one can be saved without faith, and without holiness no man shall see the Lord. I do not consider those "good works." They are an indication that child-bearing is insufficient to save a woman. I have heard it explained that child-bearing, because of the pain and risk involved, makes it easier for the Holy Spirit to work with a woman's heart and save her. While I do not think it means that a woman who does not have children cannot be saved, it may well indicate that women who have children are more likely to get saved.


On a general note, I'm refuting some of your interpretations of Scripture. Does that make your interpretations definitely false? Hrrm...

A good deal of the problem is that you are busy disbelieving
a different God than the one I am busy believing in.


Comments here, if you desire a place to express them. If they are interesting or applicable, I will add them to this page.



All red quoted commentary would be © "michtam" and are taken from this thread of the-ri.
All blue commentary, except where noted, are © Walt.